CFI QUIZ #3
Instructor's Name___________________________
 
Student's Name_____________________________ Date__________________
 
Instructions: Answer the multiple-choice question with the best possible answer. Write the answer to the essay question in the space provided. If more space is needed, use the reverse side.
 
 
1. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may
A. deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
B. not deviate from FAR's unless permission is obtained from air traffic control.
C. deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
 
 
2. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A. Under no condition.
B. Only if a second pilot is aboard.
C. Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.
 
 
3. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A. 8 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 24 hours.
 
 
 
4. An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the
A. FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.
B. owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer.
C. aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
 
 
 
5. The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
A. IFR flights only.
B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C. any flight conducted for hire or compensation.
 
 
 
6. Which statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts and shoulder harnesses?
A. Crewmembers must keep seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened at all times during movement on the surface.
B. The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts.
C. Passengers must keep seatbelts fastened at all times during movement on the surface but use of shoulder harnesses is optional.
7. A pilot in a multiengine land airplane is planning to practice IFR procedures under a hood in VMC conditions. The safety pilot must have at least a
A. Student Pilot Certificate.
B. Private Pilot Certificate, with airplane multiengine land rating.
C. Private Pilot Certificate with both airplane and instrument ratings.
 
 
 
 
8. If on a night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A. Aircraft A; it is to the left of aircraft B.
B. Aircraft B; it is to the right of aircraft A.
C. Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B.
 
 
 
9. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A. that is the least maneuverable.
B. that is either ahead of or to the other's right regardless of altitude.
C. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
 
 
 
10. What action should be taken if a glider and an airplane approach each other at the same altitude and on a head-on collision course?
A. Both should give way to the right.
B. The airplane should give way because it is more maneuverable.
C. The airplane should give way because the glider has the right-of-way.
 
 
 
11. When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is
A. 156 knots.
B. 200 knots.
C. 250 knots.
 
 
 
12. Unless otherwise authorized or required by air traffic control, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
A. 200 knots.
B. 250 MPH.
C. 250 knots.
 
 
 
13. To operate an aircraft over any congested area, a pilot should maintain an altitude of at least
A. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
C. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
14. The minimum distance at which an airplane may be operated over a structure which is located in a sparsely populated area is
A. 500 feet above the ground.
B. 500 feet from the structure.
C. 1,000 feet from the structure.
 
 
 
15. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
B. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
 
 
 
16. What action is appropriate if you deviate from an air traffic control instruction during an emergency and are given priority?
A. Submit a report to the nearest FAA regional office within 48 hours.
B. Submit a report to the manager of the air traffic control facility within 24 hours.
C. If requested, submit a detailed report within 48 hours to the manager of the air traffic control facility.
 
 
 
17. While in flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means
A. continue flight; airport unsafe, do not land.
B. give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
C. return for landing; expect steady green light at the appropriate time.
 
 
 
18. What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?
A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.
B. Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.
C. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
 
 
 
19. A turbine-powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least
A. 1,000 feet AGL.
B. 1,500 feet AGL.
C. 2,000 feet AGL.
 
 
 
20. An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at
A. both airports, as well as to fly through the area.
B. the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area.
C. the tower-controlled airport only, but not required to fly through the area.
21. What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?
A. Private Pilot Certificate.
B. Commercial Pilot Certificate.
C. Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.
 
 
 
22. Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?
A. An operating VOR is required.
B. A Private Pilot Certificate is required for all flight within this airspace.
C. Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements.
 
 
 
23. Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?
A. A VOR or TACAN receiver.
B. Two-way radio communications.
C. Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter.
 
 
 
24. What type airspeed at the planned cruise altitude should be entered on a flight plan?
A. True airspeed.
B. Indicated airspeed.
C. Estimated groundspeed.
 
 
 
25. When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
B. 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.
C. 1 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.
 
 
 
26. An airplane may be operated in uncontrolled airspace at night below 1,200 feet above the surface under the following conditions:
A. Clear of clouds and 1 mile visibility.
B. Clear of clouds and 3 miles visibility.
C. Less than 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within one-half mile of the runway.
 
 
 
27. Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
A. 2,500 feet.
B. 3,000 feet.
C. 4,000 feet.
28. While in Class G airspace under day VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL?
A. 5 SM.
B. 3 SM.
C. 1 SM.
 
 
 
29. No person may operate an airplane within Class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the
A. flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
B. airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
C. flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
 
 
 
30. Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within Class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR are
A. not authorized.
B. authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
C. authorized only if another airport in that designated airspace reports a ground visibility of 1 SM.
 
 
 
31. When operating under VFR at more than 3,000 feet AGL, cruising altitudes to be maintained are based upon the
A. true course being flown.
B. magnetic course being flown.
C. magnetic heading being flown.
 
 
 
32. Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it an
A. Airworthiness Certificate and minimum equipment list (MEL).
B. Airworthiness Certificate, aircraft and engine logbooks, and owner's handbook.
C. Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight manual.
 
 
 
33. When are emergency locator transmitter batteries required to be replaced or recharged?
A. Every 24 months.
B. After 1 cumulative hour of use.
C. After 75 percent of their useful life has expired.
 
 
 
34. An aircraft not equipped with the required position lights must terminate flight
A. at sunset.
B. 30 minutes after sunset.
C. 1 hour after sunset.
35. Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a cabin pressure altitude of
A. 12,500 feet MSL.
B. 14,000 feet MSL.
C. 15,000 feet MSL.
 
 
 
36. The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to
A. provide a list of equipment that must be operational at all times on the aircraft.
B. list the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
C. list the minimum equipment that must be installed in all aircraft as required by airworthiness directives.
 
 
 
37. Which action is appropriate if an aircraft, operating under FAR Part 91 and for which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed, is determined to have an inoperative instrument or piece of equipment that does not constitute a hazard to the aircraft? The item should be
A. removed and repaired prior to the next flight.
B. placarded "inoperative" and repaired during the next inspection.
C. deactivated and placarded "inoperative" but repairs can be deferred indefinitely.
 
 
 
38. What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?
A. None, provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling.
B. Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.
C. Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder must be operating at all times.
 
 
 
39. When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
A. When flying over water beyond gliding distance to the shore.
B. When practicing spins or other flight maneuvers for any certificate or rating.
C. When an intentional maneuver that exceeds 30° noseup or nosedown relative to the horizon is made.
 
 
 
40. Which is prohibited if the aircraft being used has not had a 100-hour inspection or annual inspection within the preceding 100 hours of time in service?
A. Giving flight instruction for hire.
B. Conducting any commercial operation.
C. Carrying passengers, either for hire or not for hire.
 
 
 
41. An aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be due after
A. 90 hours' time in service.
B. 100 hours' time in service.
C. 110 hours' time in service.
 
 
 
42. If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A. Its use is not permitted.
B. It may be used anywhere except in Class A and B airspace.
C. It may be used for VFR flight but not for IFR flight.
 
 
 
 
43. Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of
A. all appropriate Airworthiness Certificates.
B. life-limited parts of only engine and airframe.
C. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
 
 
 
44. A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include the previous
A. operating hours of the engine.
B. annual inspections performed on the engine.
C. changes required by airworthiness directives.
 
 
 
45. The NTSB defines a serious injury as any injury which
A. causes severe tendon damage.
B. results in a simple fracture of the nose.
C. involves first degree burns over 5 percent of the body.
 
 
 
46. Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage which
A. adversely affects aircraft performance.
B. causes small punctured holes in the skin or fabric.
C. results in more than $25,000 for repairs to the aircraft.
 
 
 
47. NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?
A. Aircraft collide on the ground.
B. Flight control system malfunction.
C. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.
 
 
48. If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified
A. immediately.
B. within 7 days.
C. within 10 days.
49. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file a report within how many days?
A. 3.
B. 7.
C. 10.
 
 
 
50. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
A. within 7 days.
B. within 10 days.
C. only if requested to do so.
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